1. Consider the following:
1. Oscillator
2. Emitter follower
3. Cascaded amplifier
4. Power amplifier
Which of these use feedback amplifiers?
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 3 and 4
Ans: Option a)
2. Why npn-transistors are preferred over pnp transistors?
a) Leakage current in NPN-transistors is less than
pnp-transistors.
b) Mobility of majority carrier in npn-transistors is greater than
the mobility of majority carriers in pnp-transistors.
c) Bias voltage required in npn is less than in pnp-transistors.
d) Bias voltage required in npn is greater than in
pnp-transistors.
Ans: Option b)
3. Consider the following statements
To draw a.c. equivalent circuit of a
transistor all
1.
d.c. sources are shorted
2.
a.c. sources are shorted
3.
d.c. sources are opened
4.
a.c. sources are connected to d.c. sources
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a)
2 and 4
b)
1 and 2
c)
1 only
d)
3 and 4
Ans: Option c)
4. Which one of the following statements is
not correct with regard to power amplifiers?
a) The collector current is large
b) They are used as the front end of
multistage amplifier
c) They are used near the end of multistage
amplifier
d) They have a high power rating (>1/2 W)
Ans: Option b)
5.
Consider the following statements regarding the Class-B
power amplifiers(Complementary symmetry type):
1.
The efficiency of the amplifier is higher than that
of Class-A amplifier
2.
The power output is low
3.
Cross-over distortion is present
4.
The standby power dissipation is absent
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
1,2 and 3
b)
1,2 and 4
c)
1, 3 and 4
d)
2, 3 and 4
Ans: Option c)
6. Consider the following:
1. Distortion
2. Gain
3. Bias Stabilization
4. Sensitivity
5. Frequency Response
Which of these properties of the power amplifier one should concentrate upon
while designing a good power amplifier circuit?
a)
1, 2 and 3
b)
1, 3 and 5
c)
2, 3 and 4
d)
4 and 5
Ans: Option a)
7. Consider the following:
1. Coupling Capacitor
2. Emitter by-pass capacitor
3. Emitter to base diffusion capacitance of the BJT
4. Stray capacitance of the circuit.
Which of these components in a R-C coupled amplifier
control the lower cut-off frequency of the amplifier?
a)
1 and 2
b)
2 and 3
c)
3 and 4
d)
1 and 4
Ans: Option a)
8. Which one of the following is a
regulated power supply?
a) IC 555
b) IC 844
c) IC 3080
d) IC 723
Ans: Option d)
9. Consider the following statements
regarding an OP-AMP:
1. All types of negative feedback reduce
non-linear distortion
2. All types of negative feedback reduce
the output offset voltage
3. Non-inverting (current and voltage)
feedback increases the input impedance
4. Inverting (current and voltage)
feedback decreases the input impedance
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
2 and 4 only
d)
1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: Option d)
10. Consider the following statements:
The bias stability of an emitter-bias
amplifier circuit improves by
1.
Decreasing the value of RB.
2.
Increasing the value of RE.
3.
Decreasing the value of RE.
4.
Increasing the value of RB.
5.
Increasing the value of RC.
Which of the above
statements are correct?
a)
1 and 2
b)
2 and 3
c)
3 and 4
d)
4 and 5
Ans: Option a)
11. Which of the following will be true
for a CE transistor amplifier if the emitter resistor value is made equal to
zero?
1. Its gain will increase.
2. Its stability will increase.
3. Its gain will decrease.
4. Its stability will decrease.
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a)
1 and 2
b)
2 and 3
c)
3 and 4
d)
1 and 4
Ans: Option d)
12. Which one of the following circuits is used for
converting a sine wave into square wave?
a) Astable multivibrator
b) Monostable Multivibrator
c) Bistable Multivibrator
d) Schmitt Trigger
Ans: Option d)
13. Which of the transistor models is
most preferred for the analysis of a transistor circuit both at mid-band and at
high frequencies?
a) h-parameter model
b) y-parameter model
c) s-parameter model
d) hybrid-π model
Ans: Option d)
14. Which of the following describe the
correct properties of an emitter follower circuit?
1. It is a voltage series feedback
circuit.
2. It is a current series feedback circuit.
3. Its voltage gain is less than unity.
4. Its output impedance is very low.
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a)
1, 3 and 4
b)
2, 3 and 4
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
2 and 4 only
Ans: Option a)
15. Which one of the following type of
negative feedback increases the input resistance and decreases the output
resistance of an amplifier?
a) Current series feedback
b) Voltage series feedback
c) Current shunt feedback
d) Voltage shunt feedback
Ans: Option b)
16.Which one of the following
oscillators is well suited for the generation of wide range audio frequency
sine waves?
a) RC phase-shift oscillator
b) Wien-bridge oscillator
c) Col-pitts oscillator
d) Hartley oscillator
Ans: Option b)
17. Consider the following statements
regarding a good power supply:
1. The a.c. ripple should be high
2. Sv, (Voltage stability
factor) should be low
3. ST, (Temperature stability
factor) should be low.
Which of the above statements are
correct?
a)
1, 2 and 3
b)
2 only
c)
3 only
d)
2 and 3 only
Ans: Option d)
18. Which of the following are the
non-linear applications of OP-AMP?
1. Current-to-voltage convertor
2. Comparator
3. Peak detector
4. Limiter
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a)
1, 2 and 3
b)
2, 3 and 4
c)
1, 3 and 4
d)
1, 2 and 4
Ans: Option b)
19. Consider a 565 PLL with RT
= 10 KΩ and CT = 0.01 μF. What is the output frequency of the VCO?
a) 10 kHz
b) 5 kHz
c) 2.5 kHz
d) 1.25 kHz
Ans: Option c)
20. Which of the following does not show
non-linear V-I characteristics?
a) Schottky diode
b) Tunnel diode
c) Thermistor, at a fixed temperature
d) p-n junction diode
Ans: Option c)
21. Which of the following conditions
must be satisfied for a transistor to remain under saturation?
1. Its collector to base junction should
be under forward bias.
2. Its collector to base junction should
be under reverse bias.
3. Its emitter to base junction should
be under reverse bias.
4. Its emitter to base junction should
be under forward bias.
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a)
1 and 2
b)
1 and 3
c)
2 and 3
d)
1 and 4
Ans: Option d)
22. Which junction has least junction
capacitance?
a) Alloy
b) Grown
c) Diffused
d) Point contact
Ans: Option d)
23. Assertion (A): A fixed bias
BJT circuit exhibits better performance as compared to a self bias BJT circuit.
Reason (R) : A fixed bias BJT circuit uses less components as
compared to self bias BJT circuit.
a)
Both A and R are individually true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are individually true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
Ans: Option d)
24. Assertion (A): The small signal
analysis of a transistor amplifier is done to obtain the current gain, voltage
gain and the conversion efficiency of an amplifier.
Reason (R): The small signal analysis of
a transistor amplifier uses the small signal parameter of the transistor.
a)
Both A and R are individually true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are individually true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
Ans: Option d)
25. Assertion (A): A rectifier with
inductor filter is more efficient for high load current.
Reason(R): In rectifier with inductor
filter we can use a larger choke to reduce ripple, larger choke will have
higher dc resistance which will result in lower dc output voltage for higher
load current.
a)
Both A and R are individually true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are individually true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
Ans: Option a)
26. Assertion (A): It is not desirable
to drive a transistor into hard saturation in high speed switching circuits.
Reason (R): It may not be possible to
bring it back to cut off state, if it is driven into hard saturation
a)
Both A and R are individually true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are individually true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
Ans: Option c)
27. What are the ultimate purposes of
minimizing logic expressions?
1. To get a small size expression.
2. To reduce the number of variables in the
given expression.
3. To implement the function of the
logic expression with least hardware.
4. To reduce the expression for making
it feasible for hardware implementation.
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a.
1 only
b.
2 and 3
c.
3 only
d.
3 and 4
Ans: Option d)
28. Which of the following factors are
responsible to design IC logic gates to operate at a fixed supply voltage of 5
volts?
1. Low heating of IC logic gates.
2. Compatibility with other logic gates.
3. Satisfactory and safe operation.
4. Standardization from IC Manufacturing
point of view.
Select the correct answer from the below
codes:
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
2 and 3
d)
3 and 4
Ans: Option c)
29. Which of the following statements is
not correct?
a) Propagation delay is the time
required for a gate to change its state.
b) Noise immunity is the amount of noise
which can be applied to the input of a gate without causing the gate to change
state
c) Fan-in of a gate is always equal to
fan-out of the same gate
d) Operating speed is the maximum
frequency at which digital data can be applied to a gate
Ans: Option c)
30. Which of the following are universal
gates?
1. NAND
2. NOR
3. XOR
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1,2 and 3
Ans: Option a)
31. Which of the following output
configurations are available in a TTL gate?
1. Open collector output
2. Totem-pole output
3. Tristate output
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below
a)
1 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1,2 and 3
Ans: Option d)
32. Which one of the following logic
families can be operated using a supply voltage from 3V to 15V?
a) TTL
b) ECL
c) PMOS
d) CMOS
Ans: Option d)
33. Which of the following circuits come
under the class of combinational logic circuits?
1. Full adder
2. Full subtractor
3. Half adder
4. J-K Flip-flop
5. Counter
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a)
1 only
b)
3 and 4
c)
4 and 5
d)
1, 2 and 3
Ans: Option d)
34. Consider a multiplexer with X and Y
as data inputs and Z as control input. Z = 0 selects input X and Z = 1 selects
input Y. What are the connections required to realize the 2-variable Boolean
function f = T + R, without using any additional hardware?
a) R to X, 1 to Y, T to Z
b) T to X, R to Y, T to Z
c) T to X, R to Y, 0 to Z
d) R to X, 0 to Y, T to Z
Ans: Option a)
35. With which decoder it is possible to
obtain many code conversions?
a) 2 line to 4 line
b) 3 line to 8 line
c) not possible with any decoder
d) 4 line to 16 line decoder
Ans: Option d)
36. Match List-I (Application of
Circuits) with List-II (Circuit name) and select the correct answer
using the correct code given below the lists:
List-I
A.
Divider
B.
Clips input voltage at two pre-determined levels
C.
Square wave generator
D.
Narrow current pulse generator
List-II
1.
Astable multivibrator
2.
Schmitt trigger
3.
Bistable Multivibrator
4.
Blocking Oscillator
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 2 1 3
b) 3 2 1 4
c) 4 1 2 3
d) 3 1 2 4
Ans: Option d)
37. Consider the following statements:
For a master-slave J-K Flip-flop,
1.
The toggle frequency is the maximum clock frequency
at which the flip-flop will toggle reliably.
2.
The data input must precede the clock triggering
edge transition time by some minimum time.
3.
The data input must remain fixed for a given time
after the clock triggering edge transition time for reliable operation.
4.
Propagation delay time is equal to the rise time and
fall time of the data.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2 and 3
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
3 and 4 only
38. Consider the following statements:
1. A flip-flop is used to store 1-bit of
information.
2. Race-around condition occurs in a J-K
flip-flop when both the inputs are 1.
3. Master-slave configuration is used in
flip-flops to store 2-bits of information.
4. A transparent latch consists of a
D-type flip-flop
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1, 3 and 4
c)
1, 2 and 4
d)
2 and 3 only
Ans: Option c)
39. Which of the following flip-flops is
used as a latch?
a)J-K flip-flop
b) R S flip-flop
c) T flip-flop
d) D flip-flop
Ans: Option d)
40. Which of the following conditions
should be satisfied to call an astable multivibrator circuit using discrete
components as a digital circuit?
1. A flip-flop is always a digital
circuit.
2. Only when we assign 1 and 0 to the
high and low a level of the output, a flip-flop is called a digital circuit.
3. Only if the power supply voltage is
maintained at +5V or -5V, it is called a digital circuit
4. Only if it is in IC form, following
the technology of IC Manufacture, it is called a digital circuit.
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3
c)
2 only
d)
3 and 4
Ans: Option a)
41. Which of the following Boolean algebra
rules is correct?
a) A.A’ = 1
b) A + AB = A+ B
c) A + A’B = A+ B
d) A(A+B) = B
Ans: Option c)
42. Which of the following comes under
the class of sequential logic circuits?
1. Full adder
2. Full subtractor
3. Half adder
4. J-K Flip-flop
5. Counter
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a)
1 and 2
b)
2 and 3
c)
3 and 4
d)
4 and 5
Ans: Option d)
43. Consider the following statements
regarding registers and latches:
1. Registers are made of edge triggered
FFs whereas latches are made from level-triggered FFs.
2. Registers are temporary storage
devices whereas latches are not
3. A latch employs cross-coupled
feedback connections.
4. A register stores a binary word
whereas a latch does not.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1 and 3
c)
2 and 3
d)
3 and 4
Ans: Option b)
44. Which of the following abilities are
available in a universal Shift register?
1. Shift Left
2. Shift Right
3. Parallel Load
4. Serial add
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a)
2 and 4 only
b)
1, 2 and 3
c)
1, 2 and 4
d)
1, 3 and 4
Ans: Option b)
45. Which of the following measurements
can be done using a counter?
1. Pulse duration
2. Interval between two pulses
3. Amplitude of the pulse
4. Rise time of a pulse
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a)
1 and 2
b)
2 and 3
c)
1 and 4
d)
2 and 4
Ans: Option a)
46. Match List-I (Type of N-bit ADC)
with List-II (Characteristics) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:
List-I
A.
Flash Converter
B.
Successive Approximation
C.
Counter Ramp
D.
Dual Slope
List-II
1.
Integrating Type
2.
Fastest converter
3.
Maximum conversion time = N bits
4.
Uses a DAC in its feedback path
Codes:
a)
2 3 4 1
b)
1 3 4 2
c)
2 4 3 1
d)
1 4 3 2
Ans: Option a)
47. In which one of the following types
of analog to digital converters the conversion time is practically independent
of the amplitude of the analog signal?
a) The dual slope integrating type
b) Successive Approximation Type
c) Counter ramp type
d) Tracking type
Ans: Option b)
48. Assertion (A): When all inputs of a
NAND gate are shorted to get a one input, one output gate, it becomes an inverter.
Reason (R): When all inputs of a
NAND-gate are at logic ‘0’ level, the output is at logic ‘1’.
a)
Both A and R are individually true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are individually true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
Ans: Option b)
49. Which of the following statements
about the matched filter in a communication receiver are correct?
1. Its impulse response depends on the signal
shape.
2. It maximizes the SNR at the detection
stage.
3. It produces ISI.
4. It may produce phase error if
synchronization is improper.
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a)
1 and 4 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
2, 3 and 4
d)
1,2 and 4
Ans: Option b)
50. A single mode fibre does not suffer
from which type of dispersion?
a) Waveguide dispersion
b) Material dispersion
c) Intermodal dispersion
d) Polarization mode dispersion
Ans: Option c)
51. A balanced modulator is used in the
generation of which of the following?
a) DSB-SC signal
b) FM signal
c) PM signal
d) PAM signal
Ans: Option a)
52. An amplitude modulated signal occupies
a frequency range from 395 kHz to 405 kHz. It can be demodulated by which of the
following?
a) Using an envelope detector and filter
b) Multiplying with a 395 kHz local
signal
c) Multiplying with a 405 kHz local
signal
d) Low pass filtering with cut off at
400 kHz
Ans: Option d)
53. An audio signal is band limited to 4
kHz. It is sampled at 8 kHz. What will be the spectrum of the sampled signal?
a) -4 kHz to 4 kHz
b) -8 kHz to 8 kHz
c) every 4n kHz and repeating
d) every +- 8 kHz and repeating as well
as at zero (k integer)
Ans: Option d)
54. A signal occupies a band 5 kHz to 10
kHz. For proper error free reconstruction at what rate it should be sampled?
a) 10 kHz
b) 20 kHz
c) 5 kHz
d) (10 + 5) x 2 kHz
Ans: Option a)
55. The spectral range of a band pass
signal extends from 10 MHz to 10.4 MHz. What is the minimum sampling frequency
required for reconstruction?
a) 20 MHz
b) 20.8 MHz
c) 20.4 MHz
d) 0.8 MHz
Ans: Option d)
56. An audio signal is to be transmitted
digitally. Which is the system best suited for good fidelity?
a) 8 bit PCM
b) 13 bit PCM
c) 32 bit PCM
d) PCM system with non-uniform quantizer
Ans: Option d)
57. For good quality signal transmission
all frequency components should have the same transmission delay, td
and same phase shift -ᵠ s. What can be said about the statement?
a) correct
b) True for td but not for ᵠ
s
c) Not true for td but true
for ᵠ s
d) Both td and ᵠ s are not
involved in the equality
Ans: Option b)
58. Which of the following introduces
mode partition noise?
a) coaxial line
b) Waveguide
c) Fibre transmission line
d) Both coaxial line ans waveguide
Ans: Option c)
59. Which of the following doesn’t cause
losses in optical fibre cables?
a) Impurities
b) Microbending
c) Attenuation in glass
d) Stepped index operation
Ans: Option d)
60. On which bands, do the optical
fibres operate?
1. Ultra violet band
2. Ultra high frequency band
3. Visible light band
4. Infra red band
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a)
1 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
1, 2 and 3
d)
1, 3 and 4
Ans: Option d)
61. Which one of the following photo-detector
doesn’t provide gain?
a) Photo-transistor
b) Photo conductor
c) Avalanche photodiode
d) p-i-n photodiode
Ans: Option d)
62. Consider the following statements:
In case of space wave propagation, the
signal strength at the receiver is
1.
Directly proportional to transmitter and receiver
heights
2.
Inversely proportional to distance between
transmitter and receiver
3.
Directly proportional to the frequency.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2
b)
1 and 3
c)
2 and 3
d)
3 only
Ans:
Option b)
63. What was the first commercial geostationary
communication satellite?
a) INTELSAT 1
b) ECHO
c) INSAT-1A
d) SPUTNIK
Ans: Option a)
64. What does a link budget for
satellite communication include?
a) Total cost of the satellite
b) Cost of satellite plus launch vehicle
c) Signal and noise levels in dB
d) Margins of error permitted
Ans: Option c)
65. Which one of the following
statements is correct?
a) AGC in radio receivers will keep the
total signal output fairly constant but the noise component will be reduced,
with the result S/N ratio will improve
b) AGC in radio receivers is a linear
operation w.r.t both signals and noise
c) Sudden changes in the output while
tuning which may cause damage to the components, is an unavoidable feature of
AGC
d) AGC operation is independent of
filter components used in the AGC circuit.
Ans: Option c)
66. Consider the following statements:
1. Taking 2’s complement representation
is equivalent to sign change.
2. In the 2’s complement representation
the most significant bit (MSB) is zero for a positive number.
3. In a 4 bit binary representation of a
binary number A, A + 1’s complement of A = 24.
Which of the above statements are
correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
Ans: Option a)
67. Consider the following statements:
1. Strictly speaking C supports 1
dimensional array only.
2. An array element may be an array by
itself.
3. Array elements need not occupy
contiguous memory locations.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
1 and 2
d)
2 and 3
Ans: Option b)
68. What can be the maximum dimension of
an array in C language program>
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) It is compiler dependent
Ans: Option d)
69. With reference to C programming
language, which of the following statements are correct?
1. An identifier may start with an
underscore.
2. An identifier may end with an
underscore.
3. IF is a valid identifier.
4. The number of significant characters
in an identifier is implementation dependent.
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1, 2, 3 and 4
d)
3 and 4 only
Ans: Option c)
70. How many distinct binary trees can
be constructed with three nides?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5
Ans: Option d)
71. Consider the following statements:
1. Internal sorting is used if the
number of items to be sorted is very large.
2. External sorting is used if the
number of items to be sorted is very large.
3. External sorting needs auxiliary
storage.
4. Internal sorting needs auxiliary
storage.
Which of the above statements are
correct?
a)
1 and 2
b)
2 and 3
c)
3 and 4
d)
2 and 4
Ans: Option b)
72. Which of the following has a major
role in implementation of function calls in C?
a) Processor’s register
b) Data segment
c) The heap
d) System stack
Ans: Option d)
73. Which one of the following
algorithms design techniques is used in quick sort algorithms?
a) Dynamic programming
b) Back tracking
c) Divide and conquer
d) Greedy
Ans: Option c)
74. There are four different algorithms
A1, A2, A3 and A4 to solve a given problem with the complexity order log (n), log
(log (n)), n log(n) and n/log(n) respectively.
Which is the best algorithm?
a)
A1
b)
A2
c)
A3
d)
A4
Ans:
Option b)
75. Which of the following is/are correct statement (s)?
1. Bus is a group of wires carrying information.
2. Bus is needed to achieve reasonable speed of operation.
3. Bus can carry data or address.
4. A bus can be shared by more than one device.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a)
1 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
2, 3 and 4 only
d)
1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: Option d)
76. Which of the following is included
in the architecture of a computer?
1. Addressing modes, CPU
2. Instruction set, data formats
3. Secondary memory, Operating system
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a)
1 and 2
b)
1 and 3
c)
2 and 3
d)
3 only
Ans: Option a)
77. A 3 x 8 decoder with two enable
inputs is to be used to address 8 blocks of memory. What will be the size of
each memory block when addressed from a sixteen bit bus with two MSBs used to
enable the decoder?
a) 2 K
b) 4 K
c) 16 K
d) 64 K
Ans: Option a)
78. Match List-I (Type of Memory) with
List-II (Used as) and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List-I
A.
DRAM
B.
SRAM
C.
Parallel Access Registers
D.
ROM
List-II
1.
Cache Memory
2.
Main Memory
3.
BIOS Memory
4.
CPU registers
Code:
A B C D
a)
1 4 2 3
b)
3 4 2 1
c)
1 2 4 3
d)
3 2 4 1
Ans: Option c)
79. Which of the following are the
memory performance parameters?
1. Access time and latency
2. Block size and Block access time
3. Cycle time and bandwidth
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
a)
1 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
Ans: Option d)
80. What is the address space of 8086
CPU?
a) One Megabyte
b) 256 kilobyte
c) 1 K Megabytes
d) 64 kilobytes
Ans: Option a)
81. Which of the following counters can
be used to divide the clock frequency of the microprocessor by 5?
a) 3 bit counter
b) 5 bit counter
c) mod 3 counter
d) mod 5 counter
Ans: Option d)
82. Identification of highest priority
interrupt can be achieved in a minimum time by which of the following schemes?
a) Hardwired polling
b) Priority encoder circuit
c) Software polling
d) Subdivision of interrupt registers
into a number of sub-registers which are checked parallel
Ans: Option a)
83. Which of the following is used as
the interface chip for data transmission between 8086 and a 16-bit ADC?
a) 8259
b) 8255
c) 8253
d) 8251
Ans: Option b)
84. Which one of the following
addressing modes is used in the instruction PUSH B?
a) Direct
b) Register
c) Register Indirect
d) Immediate
Ans: Option b)
85. What is the purpose of a start bit
in RS232 serial communication protocol?
a) To synchronize receiver for receiving
every byte.
b) To synchronize receiver for receiving
a sequence of byte.
c) Acts as a parity bit
d) To synchronize receiver for receiving
the last byte.
Ans: Option b)
86. The resolution of a DAC depends on
which of the following?
a) The number of bits
b) Monotonocity
c) Reference
d) The values of resistance
Ans: Option a)
87. What is the purpose of DMA facility
in microprocessor based system?
a) To increase the speed of data
transfer between the μP and I/O devices.
b) To increase the speed of data
transfer between the μP and memory.
c) To increase the speed of data
transfer between the memory and the I/O devices.
d) To improve the reliability of the
system.
Ans: Option c)
88. Personal Computer cannot be used for
which one of the following?
a) Game Playing
b) Weather Forecasting
c) Office Automation
d) Home Computing
Ans: Option b)
89. What is the characteristic of a good
control system?
a) Sensitive to parameter variation.
b) Insensitive to input command.
c) Neither sensitive to parameter
variation nor sensitive to input commands.
d) Insensitive to parameter variation
but sensitive to input commands.
Ans: Option d)
90. How can the bandwidth of a control
system be increased?
a) By the use of phase lead network.
b) By the use of phase lag network.
c) By the use of both phase-lag and
phase-lead network.
d) By the use of cascaded amplifiers in
the system.
Ans: Option a)
91. Which of the following may result in
instability problem?
a) Large error
b) High Selectivity
c) High Gain
d) Noise
Ans: Option c)
92. A negative feedback closed-loop system is
supplied to an input of 5V. The system has a forward gain of 1 and a feedback
gain of 1. What is the output voltage?
a) 1.0 V
b) 1.5 V
c) 2.0 V
d) 2.5 V
Ans: Option d)
93. For what positive value of K does
the polynomial
s4+ 8s3+ 24s2+32s+K
Have roots with zero real parts?
a)
10
b)
20
c)
40
d)
80
Ans: Option d)
94. How many roots with positive real
parts do the equation s3 + s2 – s + 1 = 0 have?
a) Zero
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
Ans: Option c)
95.
The characteristics equation of a control system is given as
s4 + 8s3 + 24s2
+ 32s + K = 0
What is the range of values of K for
this system to be stable?
a)
0 <= K< 80
b)
0 <= K< 100
c)
0 <= K< 300
d)
0 <= K<
600
Ans: Option a)
96. Which of the following can be used
as a tacho generator in control system?
a) Microsyn
b) DC servomotor
c) AC servomotor
d) Magnetic amplifier
Ans: Option c)
97. Consider the equation
s2 + 2s + k (s+2) = 0
Where do the roots of this equation
break on the root loci plot?
a)
-3.414
b)
-2.414
c)
-1.414
d)
-.0.414
Ans: Option a)
98. How many number of branches does the
root loci of the equation
s(s+2)(s+3)+K(s+1) = 0 have?
a)
Zero
b)
One
c)
Two
d)
Three
Ans: Option d)
99. The characteristic equation of a
control system is given as
s4 + 4s3 + 4s2
+ 3s + K = 0
What is the value of K for which this
system is marginally stable?
a)
9/16
b)
19/16
c)
29/16
d)
39/16
Ans: Option d)
100. The transfer function of a
controller is given as Kp + Kd.s where Kp and
Kd are constant. What type of controller is this?
a) Proportional
b) Proportional plus integral
c) Proportional plus derivative
d) Integral plus derivative
Ans: Option c)
101. The transfer function of a
linear-time-invariant system is given as 1/(s+1). What is the steady-state
value of the unit-impulse response?
a) Zero
b) One
c) Two
d) Infinite
Ans: Option a)
102. Consider the function F(s) = w/ (s2
+ w2) where F(s) is the Laplace transform of f(t). What is the
steady state value of f(t)?
a) Zero
b) One
c) Two
d) A value between –1 and +1
Ans: Option d)
