1. Which of the following statements is/are true for the diamond structure?
i. Coordination number is four
i. Coordination number is four
ii. Packing fraction is 0.34
iii. Copper crystallizes into diamond structure
iv. Lattice is FCC
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) i only
b) i,ii and iv
c) ii and iii only
d) ii, iii and iv
Ans: Option b)
2. Which of the following statements is/are true for a good conductor of electricity?
i. Its conductivity decreases with increasing temperature
ii. Number of free electrons is around 1026 m-3
iii. Its conductivity decreases with addition of impurities
iv. It is a good conductor of heat also
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) i, ii, iii and iv
b) i only
c) ii and iii only
d) iii and iv only
Ans: Option a)
3. Which of the following materials is not an insulator?
a) Diamond
b) Graphite
c) Bakelite
d) Lucite
Ans: Option b)
4. Consider the following statements:
The conductivity of a metal has negative temperature coefficient since:
i. The electron concentration increases with temperature
ii. The electron mobility decreases with temperature
iii. The electron-lattice scattering rate increases with temperature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) i only
b) i and ii
c) ii and iii
d) iii only
Ans: Option c)
5. Which of the following is not conducting material?
a) Copper
b) Tungsten
c) Germanium
d) Platinum
Ans: Option c)
6. What is the chemical bonding in silicon semiconductor?
a) Metallic
b) Ionic
c) Covalent
d) Van der Waals
Ans: Option c)
7. Which of the following is a trivalent material?
a) Antimony
b) Phosphorous
c) Arsenic
d) Boron
Ans: Option d)
8. The fuse material used in electrical lines must have which one of the following properties?
a) High resistivity
b) Low conductivity
c) High melting point
d) Low melting point
Ans: Option d)
9. Manganin, an alloy of copper and manganese is used in
a) Soldering material
b) Heating elements
c) Ballast resistors
d) Standard resistances
Ans: Option d)
10. Which if the following pairs is not correctly matched?
a) NaCl Diamagnetic
b) Gd Paramagnetic
c) Ferrite Ferrimagnetic
d) Cr2O3 Ferromagnetic
Ans: Option b)
11. Hysteresis loss in a transformer working at 220 V and at frequency of 50 Hz is 100 W. When the transformer is operated at 220 V and at a frequency of 100 Hz, What is the hysteresis loss?
a) 50 W
b)100 W
c) 200 W
d) 400 W
Ans: Option c)
12. Which of the following is not an electro-magnetic device?
a) Hall Transducer
b) Transformer
c) Speedometer
d) Eddy current damping device
Ans: Option a)
13. Which one of the following materials is used for making permanent magnets?
a) Steel
b) Carbon
c) Carbon-Steel
d) Graphite
Ans: Option c)
14. What happens when a paramagnetic material is heated above Curie temperature?
a) It becomes diamagnetic
b) It becomes non-magnetic
c) It becomes ferromagnetic
d) It becomes anti-ferromagnetic
Ans: Option a)
15. Ferromagnetic materials show hysteresis in B-H characteristic. As the magnetic field is increased slowly from zero value, What is the first process which sets in the material to give net magnetization?
a) Growth of favorably oriented domains at the cost of other domains by reversible boundary displacements.
b) Growth of favorably oriented domains at the cost of other domains by irreversible boundary displacements.
c) Domain wall orientation
d) A combination of processes a) and c) above
Ans: Option d)
16. The following properties are associated with ferroelectric materials:
i) Its susceptibility is negative.
ii) The susceptibility is expressed as χ = C/ (T – Tc)
Where C is the curie temperature.
iii) It has permanent dipoles oriented randomly
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) i only
b) i and iii
c) ii only
d) i, ii and iii
Ans: Option c)
17. The materials not having negative temperature coefficient of resistivity are
a) Metals
b) Semiconductors
c) Insulators
d) None of the above
Ans: Option a)
18. Consider the following:
i) Si
ii) Ge
iii) GaAs
iv) InP
Which of the following semiconductors should be used for making highly efficient photodiodes?
a) i and iv only
b) iii and iv only
c) i, iii and iv
d) ii, iii and iv
Ans: Option b)
19. Which of the following compounds is widely used for making ferrites?
a) FeO
b) CuO
c) MgO
d) Fe2O3
Ans: Option d)
20. Effective Q of the equivalent electric circuit of quartz crystal is of the order of
a) 200
b) 2000
c) 20,000
d) 2,00,000
Ans: Option c)
21. In a material, the fermi-level is located between the center of the forbidden band and the conduction band. Then what is that material?
a) A p-type semiconductor
b) A n-type semiconductor
c) An intrinsic semiconductor
d) An insulator
Ans: Option b)
22. Consider the following statements:
1) Acceptor level is formed very close to the conduction band.
2) The effective mass of the free electron is same as that of a hole.
3) The magnitude of the charge of a free electron is same as that of a hole.
4) Addition of donor impurities adds holes to the semiconductor
Which of the following statements are correct?
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 3 and 4
Ans: Option b)
23. Diffusion current of holes in a semiconductor is proportional to ( with p = concentration of holes/unit volume)
a) dp/dx2
b) dp/dx
c) dp/dt
d) d2p/dx2
Ans: Option b)
24. The junction capacitance of linearly graded pn-junction (with applied voltage = VB) is proportional to
a) VB1/2
b)VB-1/2
c) VB1/3
d) VB-1/3
Ans: Option d)
25. As per Hall effect, if any specimen carrying a current I is placed in a transverse magnetic field B, then an electric field E is induced in the specimen in the direction
a) parallel to I
b) perpendicular to B and parallel to I
c) parallel to I and B
d) perpendicular to both I and B
Ans: Option d)
26. Which of the following quantities cannot be measured/determined using Hall effect?
a) Type of semiconductor ( p or n)
b) Mobility of charge carriers
c) Diffusion constant
d) Carrier concentration
Ans: Option c)
27. A junction FET can be used as a voltage variable resistor
a) at pinch-off condition
b) beyond pinch-off voltage
c) well below pinch-off condition
d) for any value of VDS
Ans: Option c)
28. The maximum power dissipation capacity of a transistor is 50 mW. If the collector emitter voltage is 10 V, what is the safe collector current that can be allowed through the transistor?
a) 5 mA
b) 2.5 mA
c) 10 mA
d) 25 mA
Ans: Option a)
29.
26. Which of the following quantities cannot be measured/determined using Hall effect?
a) Type of semiconductor ( p or n)
b) Mobility of charge carriers
c) Diffusion constant
d) Carrier concentration
Ans: Option c)
27. A junction FET can be used as a voltage variable resistor
a) at pinch-off condition
b) beyond pinch-off voltage
c) well below pinch-off condition
d) for any value of VDS
Ans: Option c)
28. The maximum power dissipation capacity of a transistor is 50 mW. If the collector emitter voltage is 10 V, what is the safe collector current that can be allowed through the transistor?
a) 5 mA
b) 2.5 mA
c) 10 mA
d) 25 mA
Ans: Option a)
29.
The above figure shows the symbol of
a) p channel depletion MOSFET
b) p channel enhancement MOSFET
c) complementary MOSFET
d) p channel JFET
Ans: Option a)
30. Which of the following statements is correct for MOSFETs?
a) p channel MOS is easier to produce than n channel MOS
b) n channel MOS must have twice the area of p channel MOS for the same ON resistance
c) p channel MOS has faster switching action than n channel MOS
d) p channel MOS has higher packing density than n channel MOS
Ans: Option a)
31. The process of extension of a single-crystal surface by growing a film in such a way that the added atoms form a continuation of the single-crystal structure is called
a) Ion implantation
b) Chemical vapour deposition
c) Electroplating
d) Epitaxy
Ans: Option d)
32. The maximum concentration of the element which can be dissolved in solid silicon at a given temperature is termed as
a) Solid Solubility
b) Dissolution coefficient
c) Solidification index
d) Concentration index
Ans: Option a)
33. Which of the following devices is used in the microprocessors?
a) JFET
b) BJT
c) MOSFET
d) CMOS
Ans: Option d)
34. In a CMOS CS amplifier, the active load is obtained by connecting a
a) p channel current mirror circuit
b) n channel transistor
c) p channel transistor
d) BJT current mirror
Ans: Option a)
35. Which of the following is not LED material?
a) GaAs
b) GaP
c) SiC
d) SiO2
Ans: Option d)
36. The minimum energy of a photon required for intrinsic excitation is equal to
a) energy of bottom of conduction band
b) energy of top of valence band
c) forbidden gap energy
d) Fermi level
Ans: Option c)
37. Assertion (A): An unbiased p-n junction develops a built-in-potential at the junction with the n-side positive and the p-side negative
Reason (R): The p-n junction behaves as a battery and supplies current to a resistance connected across its terminals.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: Option c)
38. Assertion (A): Cut-in voltage for Germanium diode is greater than that for Silicon diode
Reason (R): Germanium diode has a higher reverse saturation current than Silicon diode.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: Option d)
39. Assertion (A): The h-parameter model of a BJT can be derived from its hybrid -π model and vice-versa.
Reason (R): The hybrid-π model has many more additional elements as compared to h-parameter model of the BJT.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: Option b)
40. Assertion (A): For same drain current rating N-channel MOSFET occupies more area than -channel MOSFET.
Reason (R): Electron mobility is much higher than hole mobility.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: Option d)
42. A signal x1(t) and x2(t) constitute the real and imaginary parts respectively of a complex valued signal x(t). What form of waveform does x(t) possess?
a) Real Symmetric
b) Complex symmetric
c) Asymmetric
d) Conjugate Symmetric
Ans: Option d)
43. A function of one or more variables which conveys information on the nature of physical phenomenon is called
a) Noise
b) Interference
c) System
d) Signal
Ans: Option d)
44.
Ans: Option a)
45. What is the period of the sinusoidal signal x(n) = 5 cos (0.2 π n)?
a) 10
b) 5
c) 1
d) 0
Ans: Option a)
46.
Ans: Option c)
47.
Ans: Option b)
48. Assertion (A): There are no convergence issues with the discrete-time Fourier series in general.
Reason (R): A discrete-time signal is always obtained by sampling a continuous time signal.
69. For a second order instrument, the optimum range of ξ(damping ratio), which gives good frequency response over a wide range of frequencies is
a) 0.5 to 0.6
b) 0.6 to 0.7
c) 0.7 to 0.8
d) 0.8 to 1.0
Ans: Option a)
70.The wheatstone bridge method of measuring resistance is ideally suited for the measurement of resistance values in the range of
a) 0.001 to 1 Ω
b) 0.1 to 100 Ω
c) 100 Ω to 10 kΩ
d) 100 kΩ to 10 MΩ
Ans: Option c)
71. What is the major cause of creeping in an energy-meter?
a) Over compensation for friction
b) Mechanical vibrations
c) Excessive voltage across the potential coil
d) Stray magnetic fields
Ans: Option a)
72. A compensated wattmeter has its reading corrected for error due to which one of the following parameters?
a) Frequency
b) Friction
c) Power consumed in current coil
d) power consumed in pressure coil
Ans: Option d)
73. Which of the following bridges is also used in an oscillator?
a) Maxwell
b) Schering
c) Hay
d) Wien
Ans: Option d)
74. Which of the following meters cannot measure a.c. quantities?
a) Thermocouple
b) Hot wire
c) P.M.M.C
d) Electrodynamometer
Ans: Option c)
75. Which of the following statements is not correct for thermistors?
a) They have negative temperature coefficient of resistance.
b) The sensing element is made of sintered ceramics, which are oxides of metals in the form of beads.
c) The variation of resistance with temperature is linear.
d) The resistance value at ambient temperature may range from 100 Ωto 100 k Ω.
Ans: Option c)
76. Which of the following devices is used at the first stage of an electronic voltmeter?
a) BJT
b) SCR
c) MOSFET
d) UJT
Ans: Option c)
77. Consider the following statements regarding sources of error in a Q-meter:
1. If a coil resistance R is connected in direct measurement mode and if the residual resistance of Q-meter is 0.1 R, then the measure Q of the coil would be 1.1 time the actual Q.
2. If the inductance to be measured is less than 0.1 mH, the error due to presence of residual inductance cannot be neglected.
3. The presence of distributed capacitance in a coil modifies the effective Q of the coil.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: Option c)
78. What is an advantage of an electronic voltmeter over a non-electronic voltmeter?
a) Low power consumption
b) Low input impedance
c) The ability to measure wide ranges of voltages and resistances
d) Large Portability
Ans: Option a)
79. An average response rectifier type electronic voltmeter has a d.c. voltage of 10 V applied to it. What is the meter reading?
a) 7.1 V
b) 10 V
c) 11.1 V
d) 22.2 V
Ans: Option c)
80. Which one of the following oscillators is used for the generation of high frequencies?
a) R-C phase shift oscillator
b) Wien bridge oscillator
c) L-C oscillator
d) Blocking oscillator
Ans: Option c)
81. Which of the following transducers requires a high input impedance pre-amplifier for proper measurements?
a)Thermocouple
b) Piezoelectric
c) Thermistor
d) L.V.D.T
Ans: Option b)
82. In a digital voltmeter the oscillator frequency is 400 kHz and the ramp voltage falls from 8 V to 0 V in 20 ms. What is the number of pulses counted by the counter?
a) 800
b) 2000
c) 4000
d) 8000
Ans: Option d)
83. Which of the following cannot provide as much time interval accuracy as the oscilloscope but can capture and display eight or more signals simultaneously, something that scopes cannot do?
a) Logical Analyzer
b) Digital Oscilloscope
c) Frequency Analyzer
d) Wave Analyzer
Ans: Option a)
84. Which of the following transducers is most suitable for monitoring continuous variations in very fine thickness of a material?
a) Diaphragm
b) Capacitor
c) L.V.D.T
d) Piezoelectric crystal
Ans: Option b)
85. Consider the following statements about ultrasonic flowmeters:
1. The measurement is insensitive to viscosity, pressure and temperature variations.
2. It has bidirectional measuring capability and can be used for any pipe size.
3. It has a relatively lower cost.
4. It has good accuracy, fast response and wide frequency range.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 3 and 4 only
Ans: Option c)
86.
Ans: Option b)
87.
Ans: Option c)
88.
Ans: Option c)
89.
Ans: Option c)
90.
Ans: Option d)
91.
Ans: Option b)
92.
Ans: Option a)
93.
Ans: Option b)
94.
Ans: Option b)
95.
Ans: Option d)
96.
Ans: Option b)
97.
Ans: Option a)
98.
Ans: Option c)
99.
Ans: Option a)
100.
Ans: Option b)
101.
Ans: Option a)
102.
Ans: Option c)
103.
Ans: Option d)
104.
Ans: Option a)
105.
Ans: Option c)
106.
Ans: Option d)
107.
Ans: Option d)
108.
Ans: Option a) & c)
109.
Ans: Option c)
110.
Ans: Option b)
42. A signal x1(t) and x2(t) constitute the real and imaginary parts respectively of a complex valued signal x(t). What form of waveform does x(t) possess?
a) Real Symmetric
b) Complex symmetric
c) Asymmetric
d) Conjugate Symmetric
Ans: Option d)
43. A function of one or more variables which conveys information on the nature of physical phenomenon is called
a) Noise
b) Interference
c) System
d) Signal
Ans: Option d)
44.
Ans: Option a)
45. What is the period of the sinusoidal signal x(n) = 5 cos (0.2 π n)?
a) 10
b) 5
c) 1
d) 0
Ans: Option a)
46.
Ans: Option c)
47.
Ans: Option b)
48. Assertion (A): There are no convergence issues with the discrete-time Fourier series in general.
Reason (R): A discrete-time signal is always obtained by sampling a continuous time signal.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: Option d)
49. In the field of a charge Q at the origin, the potentials at A(2, 0, 0) and B( 1/2, 0, 0) are Va = 15 volts and Vb= 30 volts respectively. What will be the potential at C( 1, 0, 0 )?
a) 25 volts
b) 22.5 volts
c) 20 volts
d) 17.5 volts
Ans: Option b)
50. What will be the equipotential surfaces for a pair of equal and opposite line charges?
a) Spheres
b) Concentric cylinders
c) Non-concentric cylinders
d) None of the above
Ans: Option c)
51. If the potential functions V1 and V2 satisfy Laplace's equation within a closed region and assume the same values on its surface, then which of the following is correct?
a) V1 and V2 are identical
b) V1 is inversely proportional to V2
c) V1 has the same direction as V2
d) V1 has the same magnitude as V2 but has different direction
Ans: Option a)
52. By what name is the equation ∇. J = 0 frequently known?
a) Poisson's equation
b) Laplace's equation
c) Continuity equation for steady currents
d) Displacement equation
Ans: Option c)
53. Method of images is applicable to which fields?
a) Electrostatic fields only
b) Electrodynamic fields only
c) Neither electrostatic nor electrodynamic fields
d) Both electrostatic and electrodynamic fields
Ans: Option a)
54. Who developed the concept of time varying electric field producing s magnetic field?
a) Gauss
b) Faraday
c) Hertz
d) Maxwell
Ans: Option b)
55.
Ans: Option b)
56. For plane wave propagating in free space or two conductor transmission line, what must be the relationship between the phase velocity Vp, group velocity Vg and speed of light C?
a) Vp > C >Vg
b) Vp < C
c) Vp = C =Vg
d) Vp < Vg < C
Ans: Option a)
57. The reflection coefficient on a 500 m long transmission line has a phase angle of -150 degrees. If the operating wavelength is 150 m, what will be the number of voltage maxima on the line?
a) 0
b) 3
c) 6
d) 7
Ans: Option d)
58. Consider the following statements:
For a 10 m long common power line connecting a switch to a light bulb
i. It is a distributed circuit.
ii. Time delay for propagation through it is negligible.
iii. It is in the form of a shielded coaxial cable of circular cross-section.
iv. As the intensity of the lamp varies, input impedance of this line also changes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) i only
b) i and ii
c) ii and iii
d) ii and iv
Ans: Option c)
59. With regard to a transmission line, which of the following statements is correct?
a) Any impedance repeats itself every λ/4 on the smith chart.
b) The S.W.R. = 2 circle and the magnitude of reflection coefficient = 0.5 circle coincide on the smith chart.
c) At any point on a transmission line, the current reflection coefficient is the reciprocal of the voltage reflection coefficient.
d) Matching eliminates the reflected wave between the source and the matching device location.
Ans: Option c)
60. It is required to match a 200 Ω load to a 450 Ω transmission line. To reduce the SWR along the line to 1, What must be the characteristic impedance of the quarter-wave transformer used for this purpose, if it is connected directly to the load?
a) 90 kΩ
b) 300 Ω
c) 9/4 Ω
d) 3/2 Ω
Ans: Option b)
61. The load end of a quarter wave transformer gets disconnected thereby causing an open-circuited load. What will be the input impedance of the transformer?
a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) Finite and positive
d) Finite and negative
Ans: Option a)
62. Multiple member of antennas are arranged in arrays in order to enhance what property?
a) Both directivity and bandwidth
b) Only directivity
c) Only bandwidth
d) Neither directivity nor bandwidth
Ans: Option b)
63. Consider the following statements regarding an antenna:
1. It is a transducer.
2. Its performance is essentially frequency sensitive.
3. It is a reciprocal device.
4. With increase in its effective aperture area, width of radiated beam increases.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1,2 and 4
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only
Ans: Option a)
64.What is the minimum value of VSWR that may exist on a transmission line?
a) Less than zero
b) Zero
c) One
d) 10
Ans: Option c)
65. Assertion (A): Capacitance of a solid conducting spherical body of radius 'a' is given by 4πϵ0a in free space.
Reason (R): ∇ x H = j ϵ 𝛚E
+ J
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: Option b)
66. Assertion (A): The expression E = -∇V, Where E is the electric field and V is the potential is not
valid for time varying fields.
Reason (R): The curl of a gradient is identically zero.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: Option b)
67.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: Option d)
68. Assertion (A): As the length of the resonant antenna is increased, the number of lobes increases and the direction of the major lobes is closer and closer to the direction of the dipole.
Reason (R): As the length increases, the current distribution along the wire becomes more and more uniform.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: Option c)
69. For a second order instrument, the optimum range of ξ(damping ratio), which gives good frequency response over a wide range of frequencies is
a) 0.5 to 0.6
b) 0.6 to 0.7
c) 0.7 to 0.8
d) 0.8 to 1.0
Ans: Option a)
70.The wheatstone bridge method of measuring resistance is ideally suited for the measurement of resistance values in the range of
a) 0.001 to 1 Ω
b) 0.1 to 100 Ω
c) 100 Ω to 10 kΩ
d) 100 kΩ to 10 MΩ
Ans: Option c)
71. What is the major cause of creeping in an energy-meter?
a) Over compensation for friction
b) Mechanical vibrations
c) Excessive voltage across the potential coil
d) Stray magnetic fields
Ans: Option a)
72. A compensated wattmeter has its reading corrected for error due to which one of the following parameters?
a) Frequency
b) Friction
c) Power consumed in current coil
d) power consumed in pressure coil
Ans: Option d)
73. Which of the following bridges is also used in an oscillator?
a) Maxwell
b) Schering
c) Hay
d) Wien
Ans: Option d)
74. Which of the following meters cannot measure a.c. quantities?
a) Thermocouple
b) Hot wire
c) P.M.M.C
d) Electrodynamometer
Ans: Option c)
75. Which of the following statements is not correct for thermistors?
a) They have negative temperature coefficient of resistance.
b) The sensing element is made of sintered ceramics, which are oxides of metals in the form of beads.
c) The variation of resistance with temperature is linear.
d) The resistance value at ambient temperature may range from 100 Ωto 100 k Ω.
Ans: Option c)
76. Which of the following devices is used at the first stage of an electronic voltmeter?
a) BJT
b) SCR
c) MOSFET
d) UJT
Ans: Option c)
77. Consider the following statements regarding sources of error in a Q-meter:
1. If a coil resistance R is connected in direct measurement mode and if the residual resistance of Q-meter is 0.1 R, then the measure Q of the coil would be 1.1 time the actual Q.
2. If the inductance to be measured is less than 0.1 mH, the error due to presence of residual inductance cannot be neglected.
3. The presence of distributed capacitance in a coil modifies the effective Q of the coil.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: Option c)
78. What is an advantage of an electronic voltmeter over a non-electronic voltmeter?
a) Low power consumption
b) Low input impedance
c) The ability to measure wide ranges of voltages and resistances
d) Large Portability
Ans: Option a)
79. An average response rectifier type electronic voltmeter has a d.c. voltage of 10 V applied to it. What is the meter reading?
a) 7.1 V
b) 10 V
c) 11.1 V
d) 22.2 V
Ans: Option c)
80. Which one of the following oscillators is used for the generation of high frequencies?
a) R-C phase shift oscillator
b) Wien bridge oscillator
c) L-C oscillator
d) Blocking oscillator
Ans: Option c)
81. Which of the following transducers requires a high input impedance pre-amplifier for proper measurements?
a)Thermocouple
b) Piezoelectric
c) Thermistor
d) L.V.D.T
Ans: Option b)
82. In a digital voltmeter the oscillator frequency is 400 kHz and the ramp voltage falls from 8 V to 0 V in 20 ms. What is the number of pulses counted by the counter?
a) 800
b) 2000
c) 4000
d) 8000
Ans: Option d)
83. Which of the following cannot provide as much time interval accuracy as the oscilloscope but can capture and display eight or more signals simultaneously, something that scopes cannot do?
a) Logical Analyzer
b) Digital Oscilloscope
c) Frequency Analyzer
d) Wave Analyzer
Ans: Option a)
84. Which of the following transducers is most suitable for monitoring continuous variations in very fine thickness of a material?
a) Diaphragm
b) Capacitor
c) L.V.D.T
d) Piezoelectric crystal
Ans: Option b)
85. Consider the following statements about ultrasonic flowmeters:
1. The measurement is insensitive to viscosity, pressure and temperature variations.
2. It has bidirectional measuring capability and can be used for any pipe size.
3. It has a relatively lower cost.
4. It has good accuracy, fast response and wide frequency range.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 3 and 4 only
Ans: Option c)
86.
Ans: Option b)
87.
Ans: Option c)
88.
Ans: Option c)
89.
Ans: Option c)
90.
Ans: Option d)
91.
Ans: Option b)
92.
Ans: Option a)
93.
Ans: Option b)
94.
Ans: Option b)
95.
Ans: Option d)
96.
Ans: Option b)
97.
Ans: Option a)
98.
Ans: Option c)
99.
Ans: Option a)
100.
Ans: Option b)
101.
Ans: Option a)
102.
Ans: Option c)
103.
Ans: Option d)
104.
Ans: Option a)
105.
Ans: Option c)
106.
Ans: Option d)
107.
Ans: Option d)
108.
Ans: Option a) & c)
109.
Ans: Option c)
110.
Ans: Option b)
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